khyannjohnson17 khyannjohnson17
  • 18-11-2019
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Would a slave owner in the south want slaves counted as population for voting purposes

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JacoBBowling330
JacoBBowling330 JacoBBowling330
  • 18-11-2019

Answer: yea..... i think

Explanation:  A contentious issue at the 1787 Constitutional Convention was whether slaves would be counted as part of the population in determining representation of the states in the Congress or would instead be considered property and, as such, not be considered for purposes of representation.

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