Answer:
No, it can not be applied.
Step-by-step explanation:
f(x) = 1/x²
f(x) is a polynomial that is not continuous
As,
f(x) = 1/0 is undefines
Secondly, it is not differentiable (i.e. the derivative does not exists on the interval given)
Derivative of this function
f'(x) = (1)x^-2
= -2x^(-2-1)
= -2x^(-3)
= -2/x³
= -2/x³
f'(0) = -2/0 is undefined
Thus, mean value theorem can not be applied.
